Having listened to the interview and read most of your blogs, is it safe to assume that Joan of Arc experienced bicameral hallucinations, or is it more likely that she was schizophrenic, as other thinkers like Viktor Frankl have guessed?
 

The distinction may be a false one. What I mean is that according to Jaynes's theory, all auditory hallucinations are a vestige of the bicameral mind. So people who are diagnosed as schizophrenic today are experiencing a partial relapse to the bicameral mind.

Also, recent studies show far more "normal" people hallucinate than was previously believed, but they keep it to themselves because of the stigma of mental illness.

So today Joan of Arc may have been considered schizophrenic, or she may have functioned relatively normally despite her hallucinations, as many do today. According to Jaynes all auditory hallucinations are a hold over from our previous mentality.
 

Fascinanting, truly. I'm looking forward to reading the books...

Something else that I just thought about... (and I don't know if one can make a connection out of this in any way)... is the assertion by many critics and philosophers that the logic of postmodern philosopy is similar to schizophrenic thought patterns.... any thoughts on that notion?