(I give up on trying to fix the HTML on my myspace blogs, so deal with it)

In some recent political conversation's I've had with friends and strangers, I've come across a fallacious argument that's so common that it deserves a name. I've already done a little re-search if there's a term for this fallacy but have failed to find anything. The argument in short, is that one's opposition to a governmental policy is to be against the intentions of the policy or it's founders. Here are a few examples of this fallacy.

Charles: I agree with Obama that we ought to double our foreign aid to poor nations.

David: Yes, I hear that's something he intends on doing, I don't agree with him on that though.

Charles: I don't get it, why are you opposed to that? Are you against helping poor nations? Don't you think poor people should have food?

or

Charles: You know, obesity is a big problem, which is why I'm happy they passed a "trans fat" ban here in California.

David: I'm not happy at all, I don't feel comfortable with the government regulating whether or not I can eat fatty foods.
Charles: …but don't you want people have a healthier diet? Do you approve of people getting overweight?

The reasoning that motivates the questions asked by Charles is that David's opposition to a governmental policy is to be against the intentions of the policy or its founders. What's wrong with this? The error is that what is in question is not the intentions but the methods. The question on whether or governmental policy is just and should be supported is not solely determined by the intentions of the policy, but other considerations. Will the policy achieve its objective? Are there superior forms of that policy that will achieve the objective more efficiently? Does the government have the legal or constitutional right to do what is in question? Does the policy strip rights away from others? These are just a few important considerations that should determine whether a policy should be supported or exist at all.

I'm going to call this fallacy the "State Intervention Opposition Fallacy," since the reasoning behind it is always in response to someone's opposition to the state's intervention.

Let's consider the case of foreign aid. It's obvious that the intentions of foreign aid are in part to help poor nations, if so why oppose it? For starters you could argue that giving poor nations food does address why they are poor in the first place but instead gives temporary assistance. Second, it's clear that it's unconstitutional and illegal. Here are some quotes by our founders and other political leaders:

" The government of the United States is a definite government, confined to specified objects. It is not like state governments, whose powers are more general. Charity is no part of the legislative duty of the government."

-- James Madison, speech in the House of Representatives, January 10, 1794

"I cannot find any authority in the Constitution for public charity. [To approve the measure] would be contrary to the letter and spirit of the Constitution and subversive to the whole theory upon which the Union of these States is founded."

-- President Franklin Pierce's 1854

"I cannot undertake to lay my finger on that article of the Constitution which granted a right to Congress of expending, on objects of benevolence, the money of their constituents."

-- James Madison, 4 Annals of congress 179 (1794)

Third, there's data out there (I don't have on hand) that suggest the amount of money given by American's voluntarily is much higher than given by our government in the form of tax dollars, therefore rending idea of foreign aid unnecessary. These are all legitimate reasons to oppose foreign aid, and none of them require that you hate poor people.

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